Guia do Teste de Reading IELTS: Teste de Prática de IELTS Reading Gratuito para IELTS General Reading e IELTS Academic Reading
Neste guia pode começar a sua prática de reading IELTS realizando um teste de reading IELTS gratuito. Existem, no entanto, duas versões do exame: IELTS general reading e IELTS academic reading. Vai aprender qual a versão mais adequada para si e como abordar cada tipo de pergunta de reading utilizando o nosso material de leitura IELTS.
Receba uma análise gratuita da sua pontuação de reading do IELTS e um plano de estudos personalizado após concluir um teste prático gratuito de reading do IELTS.
| Teste de General Reading do IELTS | Teste de Academic Reading do IELTS |
|---|---|
Abaixo está nossa lista completa de perguntas de reading do IELTS com respostas. Observação: os links em vermelho são nossas perguntas de reading mais populares e recomendadas, avaliadas por nossos alunos, e você pode praticá-las gratuitamente a qualquer momento.
Guia de prática do IELTS Reading
O restante deste guia vai ensinar-te tudo sobre o exame do IELTS Reading, tanto na versão general training como na versão académica. Vais aprender como é calculada a pontuação de Reading, como responder com sucesso a cada tipo de pergunta, a melhorar a tua leitura com material em inglês e a dominar as nossas 3 estratégias para teres sucesso na prática do IELTS Reading.
Índice
- Informação sobre o exame do IELTS Reading
- Informação sobre o IELTS General Reading
- Informação sobre o IELTS Academic Reading
- Calculadora de pontuação do IELTS Reading
- Como responder aos 11 tipos de perguntas do IELTS Reading
- Como melhorar a tua band score no IELTS Reading
- 3 estratégias para o IELTS Reading
- Descarrega gratuitamente o PDF de prática do IELTS Reading com respostas
Informação sobre o exame do IELTS Reading
O exame do IELTS Reading é constituído por 3 secções e um total de 40 perguntas. Em geral, irás responder a 12-14 perguntas em cada secção e dispões de exatamente 60 minutos para concluir o exame. Cada secção contém 1 a 3 textos, dependendo da versão do exame que estás a fazer. Se já sabes qual a versão que vais realizar, podes saltar as próximas secções. Caso contrário, é importante conheceres cada exame e saberes como te preparar.
Qual o exame do IELTS Reading certo para mim?
O exame do IELTS Reading tem duas versões: IELTS General Reading e IELTS Academic Reading. Farás o General Reading se pretendes emigrar ou ingressar no ensino secundário. Farás o Academic Reading se pretendes prosseguir estudos superiores. A maior diferença entre o general e o academic está na dificuldade dos textos do IELTS Reading. Como o nome indica, o exame académico usa material de fontes académicas, enquanto o general utiliza material do quotidiano.
Ambos os exames têm 3 secções, 40 perguntas e 11 tipos de perguntas. Podes ler em detalhe cada secção de ambos os exames na tabela em baixo.
| Secção | Exame IELTS Academic Reading | Exame IELTS General Reading |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Um texto académico longo, que vai do descritivo e factual ao discursivo e analítico. O texto será
retirado de livros, revistas científicas, revistas e jornais. 12 a 14 perguntas |
Dois ou três textos factuais curtos.
Os temas estão relacionados com a vida quotidiana num país de língua inglesa.
12 a 14 perguntas |
| 2 | Um texto académico longo, que vai do descritivo e factual ao discursivo e analítico. O texto será
retirado de livros, revistas científicas, revistas e jornais. 10 a 14 perguntas |
Dois textos factuais curtos centrados em questões relacionadas com o trabalho (p. ex., candidaturas a emprego, políticas da empresa, salários e condições).
12 a 14 perguntas |
| 3 | Um texto académico longo, que vai do descritivo e factual ao discursivo e analítico. O texto será
retirado de livros, revistas científicas, revistas e jornais. 12 a 14 perguntas |
Um texto mais longo e complexo sobre um tema de interesse geral.
Os textos são autênticos e provêm de anúncios, avisos, manuais de empresa, livros, revistas e jornais.
12 a 14 perguntas |
Agora que estás familiarizado com a estrutura do exame do IELTS Reading e com ambas as versões general e academic, é altura de descobrires se te convém mais o exame em papel ou o exame por computador.
IELTS em papel (PBT) vs. IELTS por computador (CBT)
No PBT, ser-te-á entregue um Caderno de Perguntas e uma Folha de Respostas. O Caderno de Perguntas é onde verás todas as perguntas a que tens de responder. A Folha de Respostas é onde escreverás as tuas respostas definitivas para classificação. Podes consultar a folha oficial de respostas do IELTS em PDF aqui
Nota: Ao contrário do exame de IELTS Listening, não te será concedido tempo adicional para transferires as respostas do caderno para a folha de respostas, por isso certifica-te de que vais passando cada resposta para a folha à medida que vais respondendo às perguntas.
No CBT, irás responder às perguntas no computador. Os textos aparecem do lado esquerdo e as perguntas do lado direito. Também poderás destacar texto e usar funções de controlo para copiar e colar respostas. Para mais informação sobre o PBT e o CBT, consulta o guia do IELTS por computador.
Podes praticar qualquer uma das versões sempre que quiseres com o nosso exame de prática gratuito do IELTS Reading. Encontras as ligações para todo o nosso material de IELTS Reading no topo da página.
IELTS General Reading
No exame general, os textos do IELTS Reading são retirados de livros, revistas, jornais, anúncios, avisos, manuais de empresa e orientações que poderias encontrar no dia a dia num ambiente de língua inglesa. Tal como no exame académico, existem 3 secções, contudo, no IELTS General Reading, cada secção difere ligeiramente das restantes.
Vídeo de introdução ao IELTS General Reading
-
Secção 1: contém dois ou três textos curtos ou vários textos breves
Esta secção chama-se Social Survival e contém textos relacionados com a sobrevivência linguística básica em inglês, com tarefas centradas sobretudo em obter e fornecer informação factual geral, por exemplo: avisos, anúncios e horários. -
Secção 2: inclui dois textos
Esta secção chama-se Workplace Survival e foca-se em contextos profissionais, por exemplo, descrições de funções, contratos e materiais de desenvolvimento profissional e de formação. -
Secção 3: é um único texto longo
Esta secção chama-se General Reading e envolve a leitura de prosa mais extensa, com uma estrutura mais complexa. O foco é em textos descritivos e instrutivos, em vez de argumentativos.
Esperamos que não te sintas demasiado sobrecarregado. O exame de Reading não é tão difícil quanto parece. Desde que sigas as nossas dicas de IELTS Reading e utilizes as nossas perguntas de prática gratuitas, estarás pronto para lidar com qualquer texto e atingir a tua band score pretendida. A propósito, o exame académico de Reading é pontuado de forma ligeiramente diferente do general reading. A seguir, iremos abordar as band scores de Reading e como são calculadas.
IELTS Academic Reading
No exame académico, os textos do IELTS Reading são retirados de livros, revistas científicas, revistas e jornais de fontes académicas adequadas a estudantes universitários. Cada texto é longo — entre 6 e 10 parágrafos —, pode estar escrito em vários estilos, como o narrativo ou o descritivo, e cobre uma vasta gama de temas académicos como antropologia, história, ciência, biologia, arte, educação, linguística, etc. Os textos incluirão, por vezes, termos técnicos ou mesmo material visual, como tabelas e gráficos. Podes praticar estes e outros temas com as nossas perguntas de prática do IELTS Reading.
Vídeo de introdução ao IELTS Academic Reading
Que temas académicos aparecem com maior frequência no exame oficial do IELTS Academic Reading?
Em 2018 e 2019, os temas de leitura académica mais frequentes foram história e ciências sociais, o que inclui cultura, educação, linguística e sociologia. Curiosamente, os temas de história trataram sobretudo de animais e plantas da Nova Zelândia, Austrália, Reino Unido e Canadá. Os temas seguintes mais frequentes no IELTS Reading foram psicologia, ciências naturais, arte, antropologia, gestão e biologia.
O gráfico abaixo mostra os diferentes temas avaliados nos exames académicos do IELTS Reading em 2018 e 2019.
Devido a estas tendências, certificámo-nos de que os nossos exames de prática do IELTS Reading abordam estes temas. Também acrescentámos leituras sobre temas menos frequentes, para garantir. É importante que te prepares para todas as situações, porque nunca se sabe que tema te poderá sair no exame.
Como é calculada a tua pontuação do IELTS Reading
Cada pergunta do IELTS Reading vale 1 ponto, pelo que podes obter uma pontuação «bruta» de até 40 pontos. Depois, a tua pontuação bruta é convertida na tua band score. As tabelas abaixo dão-te uma ideia geral de como as pontuações brutas são convertidas em band scores em cada exame.
Pontuação do IELTS General Reading vs. IELTS Academic Reading
| Pontuação bruta: Academic | Band score: Academic | Pontuação bruta: General | Band score: General |
|---|---|---|---|
| 39-40 | 9 | 40 | 9 |
| 37-38 | 8.5 | 39 | 8.5 |
| 35-36 | 8 | 37-38 | 8 |
| 33-34 | 7.5 | 36 | 7.5 |
| 30-32 | 7 | 34-35 | 7 |
| 27-29 | 6.5 | 32-33 | 6.5 |
| 23-26 | 6 | 30-31 | 6 |
| 19-22 | 5.5 | 27-29 | 5.5 |
| 15-18 | 5 | 23-26 | 5 |
| 13-14 | 4.5 | 19-22 | 4.5 |
| 10-12 | 4 | 15-18 | 4 |
| 8-9 | 3.5 | 12-14 | 3.5 |
| 6-7 | 3 | 9-11 | 3 |
| 4-5 | 2.5 | 6-8 | 2.5 |
| 1-3 | 2 | 1-5 | 2 |
No entanto, tem em conta que cada versão do exame do IELTS Reading é ligeiramente diferente e a pontuação necessária para atingir uma determinada banda muda consoante o desempenho de todos os candidatos que fizeram o exame nesse dia. Por isso, o número de respostas corretas necessário para obter uma band score varia ligeiramente de exame para exame, mas, em geral, deverás procurar acertar cerca de 30 em 40 perguntas se quiseres uma band score de 7.
Outra coisa a relembrar: as perguntas mais difíceis e as mais fáceis contam da mesma forma para a tua pontuação final de Reading, portanto, certifica-te de que não estás a perder pontos fáceis por ficares preso em perguntas difíceis. A seguir, abordaremos algumas dicas e estratégias do IELTS Reading sobre como responder a cada tipo de pergunta.
Dicas para o IELTS Reading – Como responder aos 11 tipos de perguntas
Existem 11 tipos diferentes de perguntas no exame de Reading e todos exigem uma estratégia diferente. Por isso, é importante praticares cada tipo para descobrires a melhor forma de o abordar e conseguires uma band score elevada. Nas secções seguintes, verás um exemplo do IELTS Reading com respostas para cada tipo de pergunta e aprenderás dicas para responder com sucesso.
- Tipo de pergunta 1 – Correspondência de informação
- Tipo de pergunta 2 – Correspondência de títulos
- Tipo de pergunta 3 – Correspondência de características
- Tipo de pergunta 4 – Identificação de informação
- Tipo de pergunta 5 – Identificação das opiniões/afirmações do autor
- Tipo de pergunta 6 – Escolha múltipla
- Tipo de pergunta 7 – Correspondência de finais de frase
- Tipo de pergunta 8 – Completar frases
- Tipo de pergunta 9 – Completar resumos, notas, tabelas e diagramas de fluxo
- Tipo de pergunta 10 – Completar legendas de diagramas
- Tipo de pergunta 11 – Perguntas de resposta curta
- Como as tendências te ajudam a preparares-te para o IELTS Reading
Tipo de pergunta 1 – Correspondência de informação
Neste tipo de pergunta, é-te pedido para fazer corresponder afirmações a parágrafos do texto. As afirmações podem ser razões, descrições, resumos, definições, factos ou explicações. Tens de encontrar a informação específica no parágrafo e fazê-la corresponder a uma das afirmações. A resposta encontra-se normalmente contida numa frase completa, e não numa única palavra. Abaixo está um exemplo de pergunta de correspondência de informação do IELTS Academic Reading.
Consulta a nossa aula completa do IELTS Reading sobre como responder a perguntas de correspondência de informação. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Reading Passage 7 has eight paragraphs labelled A-F.
Which paragraphs contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
- an explanation of the factors affecting the transmission of information
- an example of how unnecessary information can be omitted
- a reference to attitude to fame
- details of a machine capable of interpreting incomplete information
- a detailed account of an incident involving information theory
- a reference to what Shannon initially intended to achieve in his research
Answer sheet
| 27 | |
| 28 | |
| 29 | |
| 30 | |
| 31 | |
| 32 |
-
spellcheck Answers27 D
28 F
29 B
30 E
31 A
32 C
Information theory lies at the heart of everything - from DVD players and the genetic code of DNA to the physics of the universe at its most fundamental. It has been central to the development of the science of communication, which enables data to be sent electronically and has therefore had a major impact on our lives
A In April 2002 an event took place which demonstrated one of the many applications of information theory. The space probe, Voyager I, launched in 1977, had sent back spectacular images of Jupiter and Saturn and then soared out of the Solar System on a one-way mission to the stars. After 25 years of exposure to the freezing temperatures of deep space, the probe was beginning to show its age. Sensors and circuits were on the brink of failing and NASA experts realised that they had to do something or lose contact with their probe forever. The solution was to get a message to Voyager I to instruct it to use spares to change the failing parts. With the probe 12 billion kilometres from Earth, this was not an easy task. By means of a radio dish belonging to NASA's Deep Space Network, the message was sent out into the depths of space. Even travelling at the speed of light, it took over 11 hours to reach its target, far beyond the orbit of Pluto. Yet, incredibly, the little probe managed to hear the faint call from its home planet, and successfully made the switchover.
B It was the longest-distance repair job in history, and a triumph for the NASA engineers. But it also highlighted the astonishing power of the techniques developed by American communications engineer Claude Shannon, who had died just a year earlier. Born in 1916 in Petoskey, Michigan, Shannon showed an early talent for maths and for building gadgets, and made breakthroughs in the foundations of computer technology when still a student. While at Bell Laboratories, Shannon developed information theory, but shunned the resulting acclaim In the 1940s, he single-handedly created an entire science of communication which has since inveigled its way into a host of applications, from DVDs to satellite communications to bar codes - any area, in short, where data has to be conveyed rapidly yet accurately.
C This all seems light years away from the down-to-earth uses Shannon originally had for his work, which began when he was a 22-year-old graduate engineering student at the prestigious Massachusetts Institute of Technology in 1939. He set out with an apparently simple aim: to pin down the precise meaning of the concept of 'information'. The most basic form of information, Shannon argued, is whether something is true or false - which can be captured in the binary unit, or 'bit', of the form 1 or 0. Having identified this fundamental unit, Shannon set about defining otherwise vague ideas about information and how to transmit it from place to place. In the process he discovered something surprising: it is always possible to guarantee information will get through random interference - 'noise' - intact.
D Noise usually means unwanted sounds which interfere with genuine information. Information theory generalises this idea via theorems that capture the effects of noise with mathematical precision. In particular, Shannon showed that noise sets a limit on the rate at which information can pass along communication channels while remaining error-free. This rate depends on the relative strengths of the signal and noise travelling down the communication channel, and on its capacity (its 'bandwidth'). The resulting limit, given in units of bits per second, is the absolute maximum rate of error-free communication given signal strength and noise level. The trick, Shannon showed, is to find ways of packaging up - 'coding' - information to cope with the ravages of noise, while staying within the information-carrying capacity - 'bandwidth' - of the communication system being used.
E Over the years scientists have devised many such coding methods, and they have proved crucial in many technological feats. The Voyager spacecraft transmitted data using codes which added one extra bit for every single bit of information; the result was an error rate of just one bit in 10,000 - and stunningly clear pictures of the planets. Other codes have become part of everyday life - such as the Universal Product Code, or bar code, which uses a simple error-detecting system that ensures supermarket check-out lasers can read the price even on, say, a crumpled bag of crisps. As recently as 1993, engineers made a major breakthrough by discovering so-called turbo codes - which come very close to Shannon's ultimate limit for the maximum rate that data can be transmitted reliably, and now play a key role in the mobile videophone revolution.
F Shannon also laid the foundations of more efficient ways of storing information, by stripping out superfluous ('redundant') bits from data which contributed little real information. As mobile phone text messages like 'I CN C U' show, it is often possible to leave out a lot of data without losing much meaning. As with error correction, however, there's a limit beyond which messages become too ambiguous. Shannon showed how to calculate this limit, opening the way to the design of compression methods that cram maximum information into the minimum space.
Tipo de pergunta 2 – Correspondência de títulos
Este tipo de pergunta testa a tua capacidade de compreender a ideia principal de cada parágrafo. Serão dados entre 5 e 7 títulos e terás de fazer corresponder cada parágrafo do texto a um título. Um título é uma frase curta que resume a informação de um parágrafo. Existem sempre mais títulos do que parágrafos.
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de correspondência de títulos. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Reading Passage 6 has six sections, A-E.
Choose the correct heading for sections A-D and E from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-vii in boxes 2-5 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
- Commercial pressures on people in charge
- Mixed views on current changes to museums
- Interpreting the facts to meet visitor expectations
- The international dimension
- Collections of factual evidence
- Fewer differences between public attractions
- Current reviews and suggestions
| Example | Answer |
| 1. Section A | v |
- Section B
- Section C
- Section D
- Section E
| 2 | |
| 3 | |
| 4 | |
| 5 |
-
spellcheck Answers2. ii
3. vi
4. i
5. iii
Section A The conviction that historical relics provide infallible testimony about the past is rooted in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, when science was regarded as objective and value free. As one writer observes: 'Although it is now evident that artefacts are as easily altered as chronicles, public faith in their veracity endures: a tangible relic seems ipso facto real/ Such conviction was, until recently, reflected in museum displays. Museums used to look - and some still do - much like storage rooms of objects packed together in showcases: good for scholars who wanted to study the subtle differences in design, but not for the ordinary visitor, to whom it all looked alike. Similarly, the information accompanying the objects often made little sense to the lay visitor. The content and format of explanations dated back to a time when the museum was the exclusive domain of the scientific researcher.
Section B Recently, however, attitudes towards history and the way it should be presented have altered. The key word in heritage display is now 'experience', the more exciting the better and, if possible, involving all the senses. Good examples of this approach in the UK are the Jorvik Centre in York; the National Museum of Photography, Film and Television in Bradford; and the Imperial War Museum in London. In the US the trend emerged much earlier: Williamsburg has been a prototype for many heritage developments in other parts of the world. No one can predict where the process will end. On so-called heritage sites the re-enactment of historical events is increasingly popular, and computers will soon provide virtual reality experiences, which will present visitors with a vivid image of the period of their choice, in which they themselves can act as if part of the historical environment. Such developments have been criticised as an intolerable vulgarisation, but the success of many historical theme parks and similar locations suggests that the majority of the public does not share this opinion.
Section C In a related development, the sharp distinction between museum and heritage sites on the one hand, and theme parks on the other, is gradually evaporating. They already borrow ideas and concepts from one another. For example, museums have adopted story lines for exhibitions, sites have accepted 'theming' as a relevant tool, and theme parks are moving towards more authenticity and research-based presentations. In zoos, animals are no longer kept in cages, but in great spaces, either in the open air or in enormous greenhouses, such as the jungle and desert environments in Burgers' Zoo in Holland. This particular trend is regarded as one of the major developments in the presentation of natural history in the twentieth century.
Section D Theme parks are undergoing other changes,too, as they try to present more serious social and cultural issues, and move away from fantasy. This development is a response to market forces and, although museums and heritage sites have a special, rather distinct role to fulfil, they are also operating in a very competitive environment, where visitors make choices on how and where to spend their free time. Heritage and museum experts do not have to invent stories and recreate historical environments to attract their visitors: their assets are already in place. However, exhibits must be both based on artifacts and facts as we know them, and attractively presented. Those who are professionally engaged in the art of interpreting history are thus in a difficult position, as they must steer a narrow course between the demands of 'evidence' and 'attractiveness' especially given the increasing need in the heritage industry for income-generating activities.
Section E It could be claimed that in order to make everything in heritage more 'real', historical accuracy must be increasingly altered. For example, Pithecanthropus erectus is depicted in an Indonesian museum with Malay facial features, because this corresponds to public perceptions. Similarly, in the Museum of Natural History in Washington, Neanderthal man is shown making a dominant gesture to his wife. Such presentations tell us more about contemporary perceptions of the world than about our ancestors. There is one compensation, however, for the professionals who make these interpretations: if they did not provide the interpretation, visitors would do it for themselves, based on their own ideas, misconceptions and prejudices. And no matter how exciting the result it would contain a lot more bias than the presentations provided by experts.
Section F Human bias is inevitable, but another source of bias in the representation of history has to do with the transitory nature of the materials themselves. The simple fact is that not everything from history survives the historical process. Castles, palaces and cathedrals have a longer lifespan than the dwellings of ordinary people. The same applies to the furnishings and other contents of the premises. In a town like Leyden in Holland, which in the seventeenth century was occupied by approximately the same number of inhabitants as today, people lived within the walled town, an area more than five times smaller than modern Leyden. In most of the houses several families lived together in circumstances beyond our imagination. Yet in museums, fine period rooms give only an image of the lifestyle of the upper class of that era. No wonder that people who stroll around exhibitions are filled with nostalgia; the evidence in museums indicates that life was so much better in the past. This notion is induced by the bias in its representation in museums and heritage centres.
Tipo de pergunta 3 – Correspondência de características
Neste tipo de pergunta, tens de fazer corresponder uma lista de opções a um conjunto de afirmações.
As opções são um grupo de características do texto do IELTS e estão identificadas por letras.
Por exemplo, podes ter de fazer corresponder diferentes resultados de investigação a uma lista de investigadores,
características a faixas etárias, acontecimentos a períodos históricos, etc.
Repara que é possível que algumas opções não sejam usadas e que outras possam ser usadas mais do que uma vez.
As instruções indicarão se as opções podem ser utilizadas mais do que uma vez.
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de correspondência de características. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Look at the following items (Questions 7-10) and the list of groups below.
Match each item with the group which first invented or used them.
Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
- black powder
- rocket-propelled arrows for fighting
- rockets as war weapons
- the rocket
A the Chinese
B the Indians
C the British
D the Arabs
E the Americans
Answer sheet
| 7 | |
| 8 | |
| 9 | |
| 10 |
-
spellcheck Answers7 A
8 A
9 B
10 E
The invention of rockets is linked inextricably with the invention of 'black powder'. Most historians of technology credit the Chinese with its discovery. They base their belief on studies of Chinese writings or on the notebooks of early Europeans who settled in or made long visits to China to study its history and civilisation. It is probable that, some time in the tenth century, black powder was first compounded from its basic ingredients of saltpetre, charcoal and sulphur. But this does not mean that it was immediately used to propel rockets. By the thirteenth century, powder- propelled fire arrows had become rather common. The Chinese relied on this type of technological development to produce incendiary projectiles of many sorts, explosive grenades and possibly cannons to repel their enemies. One such weapon was the 'basket of fire' or, as directly translated from Chinese, the 'arrows like flying leopards'. The 0.7 metre-long arrows, each with a long tube of gunpowder attached near the point of each arrow, could be fired from a long, octagonal-shaped basket at the same time and had a range of 400 paces. Another weapon was the 'arrow as a flying sabre', which could be fired from crossbows. The rocket, placed in a similar position to other rocket-propelled arrows, was designed to increase the range. A small iron weight was attached to the 1.5m bamboo shaft, just below the feathers, to increase the arrow's stability by moving the centre of gravity to a position below the rocket. At a similar time, the Arabs had developed the 'egg which moves and burns'. This 'egg' was apparently full of gunpowder and stabilised by a 1.5m tail. It was fired using two rockets attached to either side of this tail.
It was not until the eighteenth century that Europe became seriously interested in the possibilities of using the rocket itself as a weapon of war and not just to propel other weapons. Prior to this, rockets were used only in pyrotechnic displays. The incentive for the more aggressive use of rockets came not from within the European continent but from far-away India, whose leaders had built up a corps of rocketeers and used rockets successfully against the British in the late eighteenth century. The Indian rockets used against the British were described by a British Captain serving in India as 'an iron envelope about 200 millimetres long and 40 millimetres in diameter with sharp points at the top and a 3m-long bamboo guiding stick'. In the early nineteenth century the British began to experiment with incendiary barrage rockets. The British rocket differed from the Indian version in that it was completely encased in a stout, iron cylinder, terminating in a conical head, measuring one metre in diameter and having a stick almost five metres long and constructed in such a way that it could be firmly attached to the body of the rocket. The Americans developed a rocket, complete with its own launcher, to use against the Mexicans in the mid-nineteenth century. A long cylindrical tube was propped up by two sticks and fastened to the top of the launcher, thereby allowing the rockets to be inserted and lit from the other end. However, the results were sometimes not that impressive as the behaviour of the rockets in flight was less than predictable.
Tipo de pergunta 4 – Identificação de informação (TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN)
Neste tipo de pergunta, são-te dadas afirmações relacionadas com o texto e o teu trabalho será indicar se a afirmação é verdadeira, falsa ou não é dada. Este é um dos tipos de pergunta mais difíceis do IELTS Reading, porque é necessário aplicar uma lógica rigorosa para responder corretamente. É imperativo que os candidatos compreendam a diferença entre «FALSE» e «NOT GIVEN».
Se a resposta for «FALSE», significa que existe informação no texto que prova que a afirmação está incorreta.
Se a resposta for «NOT GIVEN», significa que o texto não contém a informação apresentada na afirmação, nem a confirma ou contradiz.
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de identificação de informação (TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN). Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
- Chronobiology is the study of how living things have evolved over time.
- The rise and fall of sea levels affects how sea creatures behave.
- Most animals are active during the daytime.
- Circadian rhythms identify how we do different things on different days.
- A 'night person' can still have a healthy circadian rhythm.
- New therapies can permanently change circadian rhythms without causing harm.
- Naturally-produced vegetables have more nutritional value
| 1 | |
| 2 | |
| 3 | |
| 4 | |
| 5 | |
| 6 | |
| 7 |
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spellcheck Answers1. FALSE
2. TRUE
3. NOT GIVEN
4. FALSE
5. TRUE
6. FALSE
7. TRUE
Chronobiology might sound a little futuristic – like something from a science fiction novel, perhaps – but it's actually a field of study that concerns one of the oldest processes life on this planet has ever known: short-term rhythms of time and their effect on flora and fauna.
This can take many forms. Marine life, for example, is influenced by tidal patterns. Animals tend to be active or inactive depending on the position of the sun or moon. Numerous creatures, humans included, are largely diurnal – that is, they like to come out during the hours of sunlight. Nocturnal animals, such as bats and possums, prefer to forage by night. A third group are known as crepuscular: they thrive in the lowlight of dawn and dusk and remain inactive at other hours.
When it comes to humans, chronobiologists are interested in what is known as the circadian rhythm. This is the complete cycle our bodies are naturally geared to undergo within the passage of a twenty-four hour day. Aside from sleeping at night and waking during the day, each cycle involves many other factors such as changes in blood pressure and body temperature. Not everyone has an identical circadian rhythm. 'Night people', for example, often describe how they find it very hard to operate during the morning, but become alert and focused by evening. This is a benign variation within circadian rhythms known as a chronotype.
Scientists have limited abilities to create durable modifications of chronobiological demands. Recent therapeutic developments for humans such as artificial light machines and melatonin administration can reset our circadian rhythms, for example, but our bodies can tell the difference and health suffers when we breach these natural rhythms for extended periods of time. Plants appear no more malleable in this respect; studies demonstrate that vegetables grown in season and ripened on the tree are far higher in essential nutrients than those grown in greenhouses and ripened by laser.
Knowledge of chronobiological patterns can have many pragmatic implications for our day-to-day lives. While contemporary living can sometimes appear to subjugate biology – after all, who needs circadian rhythms when we have caffeine pills, energy drinks, shift work and cities that never sleep? – keeping in synch with our body clock is important.
The average urban resident, for example, rouses at the eye-blearing time of 6.04 a.m., which researchers believe to be far too early. One study found that even rising at 7.00 a.m. has deleterious effects on health unless exercise is performed for 30 minutes afterward. The optimum moment has been whittled down to 7.22 a.m.; muscle aches, headaches and moodiness were reported to be lowest by participants in the study who awoke then.
Once you're up and ready to go, what then? If you're trying to shed some extra pounds, dietitians are adamant: never skip breakfast. This disorients your circadian rhythm and puts your body in starvation mode. The recommended course of action is to follow an intense workout with a carbohydrate-rich breakfast; the other way round and weight loss results are not as pronounced.
Morning is also great for breaking out the vitamins. Supplement absorption by the body is not temporal-dependent, but naturopath Pam Stone notes that the extra boost at breakfast helps us get energised for the day ahead. For improved absorption, Stone suggests pairing supplements with a food in which they are soluble and steering clear of caffeinated beverages. Finally, Stone warns to take care with storage; high potency is best for absorption, and warmth and humidity are known to deplete the potency of a supplement.
After-dinner espressos are becoming more of a tradition – we have the Italians to thank for that – but to prepare for a good night's sleep we are better off putting the brakes on caffeine consumption as early as 3 p.m. With a seven hour half-life, a cup of coffee containing 90 mg of caffeine taken at this hour could still leave 45 mg of caffeine in your nervous system at ten o'clock that evening. It is essential that, by the time you are ready to sleep, your body is rid of all traces.
Evenings are important for winding down before sleep; however, dietitian Geraldine Georgeou warns that an after-five carbohydrate-fast is more cultural myth than chronobiological demand. This will deprive your body of vital energy needs. Overloading your gut could lead to indigestion, though. Our digestive tracts do not shut down for the night entirely, but their work slows to a crawl as our bodies prepare for sleep. Consuming a modest snack should be entirely sufficient.
Tipo de pergunta 5 – Identificação das opiniões/afirmações do autor
Neste tipo de pergunta, são-te dadas várias afirmações e é-te perguntado:
As afirmações seguintes estão de acordo com as opiniões/afirmações do autor?
Tens de escrever YES, NO ou NOT GIVEN nas caixas da folha de respostas.
NO significa que as opiniões ou afirmações do autor contradizem explicitamente a afirmação.
NOT GIVEN significa que a opinião ou afirmação não é confirmada nem contradita pelo texto.
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de identificação das opiniões/afirmações do autor. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in the reading passage?
In boxes 4-7 on your answer sheet write
YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
- Thirty per cent of deaths in the United States are caused by smoking-relateddiseases.
- If one partner in a marriage smokes, the other is likely to take up smoking
- Teenagers whose parents smoke are at risk of getting lung cancer at some time during their lives.
- Opponents of smoking financed the UCSF study.
Answer sheet
| 4 | |
| 5 | |
| 6 | |
| 7 |
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spellcheck Answers4. NO
5. NOT GIVEN
6. YES
7. NOT GIVEN
Discovered in the early 1800s and named 'nicotianine', the oily essence now called nicotine is the main active ingredient of tobacco. Nicotine, however, is only a small component of cigarette smoke, which contains more than 4,700 chemical compounds, including 43 cancer-causing substances. In recent times, scientific research has been providing evidence that years of cigarette smoking vastly increases the risk of developing fatal medical conditions.
In addition to being responsible for more than 85 per cent of lung cancers, smoking is associated with cancers of, amongst others, the mouth, stomach and kidneys, and is thought to cause about 14 per cent of leukemia and cervical cancers. In 1990, smoking caused more than 84,000 deaths, mainly resulting from such problems as pneumonia, bronchitis and influenza. Smoking, it is believed, is responsible for 30 per cent of all deaths from cancer and clearly represents the most important preventable cause of cancer in countries like the United States today.
Passive smoking, the breathing in of the side-stream smoke from the burning of tobacco between puffs or of the smoke exhaled by a smoker, also causes a serious health risk. A report published in 1992 by the US Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) emphasized the health dangers, especially from side-stream smoke. This type of smoke contains more smaller particles and is therefore more likely to be deposited deep in the lungs. On the basis of this report, the EPA has classified environmental tobacco smoke in the highest risk category for causing cancer.
As an illustration of the health risks, in the case of a married couple where one partner is a smoker and one a non-smoker, the latter is believed to have a 30 per cent higher risk of death from heart disease because of passive smoking. The risk of lung cancer also increases over the years of exposure and the figure jumps to 80 per cent if the spouse has been smoking four packs a day for 20 years. It has been calculated that 17 per cent of cases of lung cancer can be attributed to high levels of exposure to second-hand tobacco smoke during childhood and adolescence.
A more recent study by researchers at the University of California at San Francisco (UCSF) has shown that second-hand cigarette smoke does more harm to non-smokers than to smokers. Leaving aside the philosophical question of whether anyone should have to breathe someone else's cigarette smoke, the report suggests that the smoke experienced by many people in their daily lives is enough to produce substantial adverse effects on a person's heart and lungs.
The report, published in the Journal of the American Medical Association (AMA), was based on the researchers' own earlier research but also includes a review of studies over the past few years. The American Medical Association represents about half of all US doctors and is a strong opponent of smoking. The study suggests that people who smoke cigarettes are continually damaging their cardiovascular system, which adapts in order to compensate for the effects of smoking. It further states that people who do not smoke do not have the benefit of their system adapting to the smoke inhalation. Consequently, the effects of passive smoking are far greater on non-smokers than on smokers.
This report emphasizes that cancer is not caused by a single element in cigarette smoke; harmful effects to health are caused by many components. Carbon monoxide, for example, competes with oxygen in red blood cells and interferes with the blood's ability to deliver life-giving oxygen to the heart. Nicotine and other toxins in cigarette smoke activate small blood cells called platelets, which increases the likelihood of blood clots, thereby affecting blood circulation throughout the body.
The researchers criticize the practice of some scientific consultants who work with the tobacco industry for assuming that cigarette smoke has the same impact on smokers as it does on non-smokers. They argue that those scientists are underestimating the damage done by passive smoking and, in support of their recent findings, cite some previous research which points to passive smoking as the cause for between 30,000 and 60,000 deaths from heart attacks each year in the United States. This means that passive smoking is the third most preventable cause of death after active smoking and alcohol-related diseases
The study argues that the type of action needed against passive smoking should be similar to that being taken against illegal drugs and AIDS (SIDA). The UCSF researchers maintain that the simplest and most cost-effective action is to establish smoke-free work places, schools and public places.
Tipo de pergunta 6 – Escolha múltipla
Tanto no IELTS Academic Reading como no IELTS General Reading, terás de responder a perguntas de escolha múltipla. Cada pergunta varia em termos do número de opções que tens de selecionar e do tipo de pergunta apresentada.
Diferentes números de opções de resposta
- Escolher uma resposta entre quatro opções (a mais comum)
- Escolher duas respostas entre cinco opções
- Escolher três respostas entre seis opções
Tipos de pergunta
- Completar uma frase
- Responder a uma pergunta
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de escolha múltipla. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Choose the appropriate letters A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in boxes 10-12 on your answer sheet.
- reduced the productivity of farmland by 20 per cent.
- was almost as severe as in India and China.
- was causing significant damage to 20 per cent of farmland.
- could be reduced by converting cultivated land to meadow or forest.
- used 50 per cent less fertiliser than Dutch farmers.
- used twice as much fertiliser as they had in 1960.
- applied fertiliser much more frequently than in 1960.
- more than doubled the amount of pesticide they used in just 3 years.
- farm incomes
- use of fertiliser
- over-stocking
- farm diversification
Answer sheet
| 10 | |
| 11 | |
| 12 |
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spellcheck Answers10. C
11. B
12. D
All these activities may have damaging environmental impacts. For example, land clearing for agriculture is the largest single cause of deforestation; chemical fertilisers and pesticides may contaminate water supplies; more intensive farming and the abandonment of fallow periods tend to exacerbate soil erosion; and the spread of monoculture and use of high- yielding varieties of crops have been accompanied by the disappearance of old varieties of food plants which might have provided some insurance against pests or diseases in future. Soil erosion threatens the productivity of land in both rich and poor countries. The United States, where the most careful measurements have been done, discovered in 1982 that about one-fifth of its farmland was losing topsoil at a rate likely to diminish the soil's productivity. The country subsequently embarked upon a program to convert 11 per cent of its cropped land to meadow or forest. Topsoil in India and China is vanishing much faster than in America.
Government policies have frequently compounded the environmental damage that farming can cause. In the rich countries, subsidies for growing crops and price supports for farm output drive up the price of land. The annual value of these subsidies is immense: about $250 billion, or more than all World Bank lending in the 1980s. To increase the output of crops per acre, a farmer's easiest option is to use more of the most readily available inputs: fertilisers and pesticides. Fertiliser use doubled in Denmark in the period 1960-1985 and increased in The Netherlands by 150 per cent. The quantity of pesticides applied has risen too: by 69 per cent in 1975-1984 in Denmark, for example, with a rise of 115 per cent in the frequency of application in the three years from 1981.
In the late 1980s and early 1990s some efforts were made to reduce farm subsidies. The most dramatic example was that of New Zealand, which scrapped most farm support in 1984. A study of the environmental effects, conducted in 1993, found that the end of fertiliser subsidies had been followed by a fall in fertiliser use (a fall compounded by the decline in world commodity prices, which cut farm incomes). The removal of subsidies also stopped land-clearing and over-stocking, which in the past had been the principal causes of erosion. Farms began to diversify. The one kind of subsidy whose removal appeared to have been bad for the environment was the subsidy to manage soil erosion.
In less enlightened countries, and in the European Union, the trend has been to reduce rather than eliminate subsidies, and to introduce new payments to encourage farmers to treat their land in environmentally friendlier ways, or to leave it fallow. It may sound strange but such payments need to be higher than the existing incentives for farmers to grow food crops. Farmers, however, dislike being paid to do nothing. In several countries they have become interested in the possibility of using fuel produced from crop residues either as a replacement for petrol (as ethanol) or as fuel for power stations (as biomass). Such fuels produce far less carbon dioxide than coal or oil, and absorb carbon dioxide as they grow. They are therefore less likely to contribute to the greenhouse effect. But they are rarely competitive with fossil fuels unless subsidised - and growing them does no less environmental harm than other crops.
Tipo de pergunta 7 – Correspondência de finais de frase
Neste tipo de prova, será dada uma lista de frases incompletas, sem os finais, e outra lista com possíveis finais. A tua tarefa é fazer corresponder as frases incompletas ao final correto, com base no texto.
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de correspondência de finais de frase. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-J from the box below.
Write the correct letter A-J in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
- Passive smoking
- Compared with a non-smoker, a smoker
- The American Medical Association
- includes reviews of studies in its reports.
- argues for stronger action against smoking in public places.
- is one of the two most preventable causes of death.
- is more likely to be at risk from passive smoking diseases.
- is more harmful to non-smokers than to smokers.
- is less likely to be at risk of contracting lung cancer.
- is more likely to be at risk of contracting various cancers.
- opposes smoking and publishes research on the subject.
- is just as harmful to smokers as it is to non-smokers.
- reduces the quantity of blood flowing around the body.
Answer sheet
| 8 | |
| 9 | |
| 10 |
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spellcheck Answers8. E
9. G
10. H
Discovered in the early 1800s and named 'nicotianine', the oily essence now called nicotine is the main active ingredient of tobacco. Nicotine, however, is only a small component of cigarette smoke, which contains more than 4,700 chemical compounds, including 43 cancer-causing substances. In recent times, scientific research has been providing evidence that years of cigarette smoking vastly increases the risk of developing fatal medical conditions.
In addition to being responsible for more than 85 per cent of lung cancers, smoking is associated with cancers of, amongst others, the mouth, stomach and kidneys, and is thought to cause about 14 per cent of leukaemia and cervical cancers. In 1990, smoking caused more than 84,000 deaths, mainly resulting from such problems as pneumonia, bronchitis and influenza. Smoking, it is believed, is responsible for 30 per cent of all deaths from cancer and clearly represents the most important preventable cause of cancer in countries like the United States today.
Passive smoking, the breathing in of the side-stream smoke from the burning of tobacco between puffs or of the smoke exhaled by a smoker, also causes a serious health risk. A report published in 1992 by the US Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) emphasized the health dangers, especially from sidestream smoke. This type of smoke contains more smaller particles and is therefore more likely to be deposited deep in the lungs. On the basis of this report, the EPA has classified environmental tobacco smoke in the highest risk category for causing cancer.
As an illustration of the health risks, in the case of a married couple where one partner is a smoker and one a non-smoker, the latter is believed to have a 30 per cent higher risk of death from heart disease because of passive smoking. The risk of lung cancer also increases over the years of exposure and the figure jumps to 80 per cent if the spouse has been smoking four packs a day for 20 years. It has been calculated that 17 per cent of cases of lung cancer can be attributed to high levels of exposure to secondhand tobacco smoke during childhood and adolescence.
A more recent study by researchers at the University of California at San Francisco (UCSF) has shown that second-hand cigarette smoke does more harm to non-smokers than to smokers. Leaving aside the philosophical question of whether anyone should have to breathe someone else's cigarette smoke, the report suggests that the smoke experienced by many people in their daily lives is enough to produce substantial adverse effects on a person's heart and lungs.
The report, published in the Journal of the American Medical Association (AMA), was based on the researchers' own earlier research but also includes a review of studies over the past few years. The American Medical Association represents about half of all US doctors and is a strong opponent of smoking. The study suggests that people who smoke cigarettes are continually damaging their cardiovascular system, which adapts in order to compensate for the effects of smoking. It further states that people who do not smoke do not have the benefit of their system adapting to the smoke inhalation. Consequently, the effects of passive smoking are far greater on non-smokers than on smokers.
This report emphasizes that cancer is not caused by a single element in cigarette smoke; harmful effects to health are caused by many components. Carbon monoxide, for example, competes with oxygen in red blood cells and interferes with the blood's ability to deliver life-giving oxygen to the heart. Nicotine and other toxins in cigarette smoke activate small blood cells called platelets, which increases the likelihood of blood clots, thereby affecting blood circulation throughout the body.
The researchers criticize the practice of some scientific consultants who work with the tobacco industry for assuming that cigarette smoke has the same impact on smokers as it does on non-smokers. They argue that those scientists are underestimating the damage done by passive smoking and, in support of their recent findings, cite some previous research which points to passive smoking as the cause for between 30,000 and 60,000 deaths from heart attacks each year in the United States. This means that passive smoking is the third most preventable cause of death after active smoking and alcohol-related diseases.
The study argues that the type of action needed against passive smoking should be similar to that being taken against illegal drugs and AIDS (SIDA). The UCSF researchers maintain that the simplest and most cost-effective action is to establish smoke-free work places, schools and public places.
Tipo de pergunta 8 – Completar frases
Neste tipo de pergunta, ser-te-ão dadas várias frases com lacunas e ser-te-á pedido para as
completar com palavras do texto.
Estas perguntas são tanto testes de vocabulário como de leitura, pois exigem que reconheças paráfrases
(uso de palavras diferentes para repetir uma frase com o mesmo significado) e sinónimos
(palavras com significados iguais ou muito semelhantes).
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de completar frases ou tabelas. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
- ______would be a more effective target for government investment than micro-turbines.
- An indirect benefit of subsidising micro-turbines is the support it provides for ______
- Most spending has a _____effect on the environment
- If people buy a micro-turbine, they have less money to spend on things like foreign holidays and ____.
Answer sheet
| 10 | |
| 11 | |
| 12 | |
| 13 |
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spellcheck Answers10 offshore wind farms.
11. developing technology
12. negatived
13. cars
A In terms of micro-renewable energy sources suitable for private use, a 15-kilowatt (kW) turbine is at the biggest end of the spectrum. With a nine metre diameter and a pole as high as a four-storey house, this is the most efficient form of wind microturbine, and the sort of thing you could install only if you had plenty of space and money. According to one estimate, a 15-kW micro-turbine (that's one with the maximum output), costing £41,000 to purchase and a further £9,000 to install, is capable of delivering 25,000 kilowatt-hours (kWh)' of electricity each year if placed on a suitably windy site.
B I don't know of any credible studies of the greenhouse gas emissions involved in producing and installing turbines, so my estimates here are going to be even more broad than usual. However, it is worth trying. If turbine manufacture is about as carbon intensive per pound sterling of product as other generators and electrical motors, which seems a reasonable assumption, the carbon intensity of manufacture will be around 640 kilograms (kg) per £1,000 of value. Installation is probably about as carbon intensive as typical construction, at around 380 kg per £1,000. That makes the carbon footprint (the total amount of greenhouse gases that installing a turbine creates) 30 tonnes.
C The carbon savings from wind-powered electricity generation depend on the carbon intensity of the electricity that you're replacing. Let's assume that your generation replaces the coal-fuelled part of the country's energy mix. In other words, if you live in the UK, let's say that rather than replacing typical grid electricity, which comes from a mix of coal, gas, oil and renewable energy sources, the effect of your turbine is to reduce the use of coal-fired power stations. That's reasonable, because coal is the least preferable source in the electricity mix. In this case the carbon saving is roughly one kilogram per kWh, so you save 25 tonnes per year and pay back the embodied carbon in just 14 months - a great start.
D The UK government has recently introduced a subsidy for renewable energy that pays individual producers 24p per energy unit on top of all the money they save on their own fuel bill, and on selling surplus electricity back to the grid at approximately 5p per unit. With all this taken into account, individuals would get back £7,250 per year on their investment. That pays back the costs in about six years. It makes good financial sense and, for people who care about the carbon savings for their own sake, it looks like a fantastic move. The carbon investment pays back in just over a year, and every year after that is a 25-tonne carbon saving. (It's important to remember that all these sums rely on a wind turbine having a favourable location)
E So, at face value, the turbine looks like a great idea environmentally, and a fairly good long-term investment economically for the person installing it. However, there is a crucial perspective missing from the analysis so far. Has the government spent its money wisely? It has invested 24p per unit into each micro-turbine. That works out at a massive £250 per tonne of carbon saved. My calculations tell me that had the government invested its money in offshore wind farms, instead of subsidising smaller domestic turbines, they would have broken even after eight years. In other words, the micro-turbine works out as a good investment for individuals, but only because the government spends, and arguably wastes, so much money subsidising it. Carbon savings are far lower too.
F Nevertheless, although the micro-wind turbine subsidy doesn't look like the very best way of spending government resources on climate change mitigation, we are talking about investing only about 0.075 percent per year of the nation's GDP to get a one percent reduction in carbon emissions, which is a worthwhile benefit. In other words, it could be much better, but it could be worse. In addition, such investment helps to promote and sustain developing technology.
G There is one extra favourable way of looking at the micro-wind turbine, even if it is not the single best way of investing money in cutting carbon. Input- output modelling has told us that it is actually quite difficult to spend money without having a negative carbon impact. So if the subsidy encourages people to spend their money on a carbon-reducing technology such as a wind turbine, rather than on carbon-producing goods like cars, and services such as overseas holidays, then the reductions in emissions will be greater than my simple sums above have suggested.
Tipo de pergunta 9 – Completar resumos, notas, tabelas e diagramas de fluxo
Neste tipo de pergunta, é-te dado um resumo do texto do IELTS e tens de o completar com informação retirada do texto. O resumo abrange apenas uma parte do texto, não o resume na totalidade. Há duas variantes deste tipo de pergunta: ou seleccionas palavras do texto, ou escolhes a partir de uma lista de respostas.
A informação dada pode estar sob a forma de:
- várias frases ligadas (designadas resumo)
- várias notas (designadas notas)
- uma tabela com algumas células vazias ou parcialmente vazias (designada tabela)
- uma série de caixas ou passos ligados por setas, mostrando uma sequência de acontecimentos
- com algumas caixas ou passos vazios ou parcialmente vazios (designado diagrama de fluxo).
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de completar resumos. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.
| Species | French | Spanish | South African ball |
| Preferred climate | cool | 9 _____ | 12 _____ |
| Complementary species | Spanish | 13 _____ | |
| Start of active period | late spring | 10 _____ | |
| Number of generations per year | 1-2 | 11 _____ |
Answer sheet
| 9 | |
| 10 | |
| 11 | |
| 12 | |
| 13 |
-
spellcheck Answers9 temperate
10 early spring
11 two to five / 2-5
12 sub-tropical
13 South African tunneling/tunnelling
Introducing dung1 beetles into a pasture is a simple process: approximately 1,500 beetles are released, a handful at a time, into fresh cow pats2 in the cow pasture. The beetles immediately disappear beneath the pats digging and tunnelling and, if they successfully adapt to their new environment, soon become a permanent, self-sustaining part of the local ecology. In time they multiply and within three or four years the benefits to the pasture are obvious.
Dung beetles work from the inside of the pat so they are sheltered from predators such as birds and foxes. Most species burrow into the soil and bury dung in tunnels directly underneath the pats, which are hollowed out from within. Some large species originating from France excavate tunnels to a depth of approximately 30 cm below the dung pat. These beetles make sausage-shaped brood chambers along the tunnels. The shallowest tunnels belong to a much smaller Spanish species that buries dung in chambers that hang like fruit from the branches of a pear tree. South African beetles dig narrow tunnels of approximately 20 cm below the surface of the pat. Some surface-dwelling beetles, including a South African species, cut perfectly-shaped balls from the pat, which are rolled away and attached to the bases of plants.
For maximum dung burial in spring, summer and autumn, farmers require a variety of species with overlapping periods of activity. In the cooler environments of the state of Victoria, the large French species (2.5 cms long), is matched with smaller (half this size), temperate-climate Spanish species. The former are slow to recover from the winter cold and produce only one or two generations of offspring from late spring until autumn. The latter, which multiply rapidly in early spring, produce two to five generations annually. The South African ball-rolling species, being a sub-tropical beetle, prefers the climate of northern and coastal New South Wales where it commonly works with the South African tunneling species. In warmer climates, many species are active for longer periods of the year.
Glossary
1. dung: the droppings or excreta of animals
2. cow pats: droppings of cows
Tipo de pergunta 10 – Completar legendas de diagramas
Este tipo de pergunta exige que completes legendas num diagrama, relacionado com uma descrição contida no texto. Existem três tipos de diagramas que podes encontrar: um desenho técnico de uma máquina ou invento, algo do mundo natural ou um projeto ou planta.
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de completar legendas de diagramas. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Label the tunnels on the diagram below using words from the box.
Write your answers in boxes 6-8 on your answer sheet.
Answer sheet
| 6 | |
| 7 | |
| 8 |
-
spellcheck Answers6 South African
7 French
8 Spanish
Introducing dung1 beetles into a pasture is a simple process: approximately 1,500 beetles are released, a handful at a time, into fresh cow pats2 in the cow pasture. The beetles immediately disappear beneath the pats digging and tunnelling and, if they successfully adapt to their new environment, soon become a permanent, self-sustaining part of the local ecology. In time they multiply and within three or four years the benefits to the pasture are obvious.
Dung beetles work from the inside of the pat so they are sheltered from predators such as birds and foxes. Most species burrow into the soil and bury dung in tunnels directly underneath the pats, which are hollowed out from within. Some large species originating from France excavate tunnels to a depth of approximately 30 cm below the dung pat. These beetles make sausage-shaped brood chambers along the tunnels. The shallowest tunnels belong to a much smaller Spanish species that buries dung in chambers that hang like fruit from the branches of a pear tree. South African beetles dig narrow tunnels of approximately 20 cm below the surface of the pat. Some surface-dwelling beetles, including a South African species, cut perfectly-shaped balls from the pat, which are rolled away and attached to the bases of plants.
For maximum dung burial in spring, summer and autumn, farmers require a variety of species with overlapping periods of activity. In the cooler environments of the state of Victoria, the large French species (2.5 cms long), is matched with smaller (half this size), temperate-climate Spanish species. The former are slow to recover from the winter cold and produce only one or two generations of offspring from late spring until autumn. The latter, which multiply rapidly in early spring, produce two to five generations annually. The South African ball-rolling species, being a sub-tropical beetle, prefers the climate of northern and coastal New South Wales where it commonly works with the South African tunneling species. In warmer climates, many species are active for longer periods of the year.
1. dung: the droppings or excreta of animals
2. cow pats: droppings of cows
Tipo de pergunta 11 – Perguntas de resposta curta
Neste tipo de pergunta, tens de escrever uma, duas ou três palavras, ou um número, como resposta.
As perguntas referem-se geralmente a informação factual sobre detalhes do texto.
As instruções indicarão claramente quantas palavras/números deves usar nas tuas respostas, p. ex., NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER do texto, ONE WORD ONLY ou NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
Se escreveres mais do que o número de palavras pedido, perderás pontos.
Os números podem ser escritos em algarismos ou por extenso.
Consulta a nossa aula completa sobre como responder a perguntas de resposta curta. Nela podes assistir a vídeos para ambas as versões do exame e a explicações detalhadas com perguntas de exemplo.
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.
- In which year did the World Health Organisation define health in terms of mental, physical and social well-being
- Name the three broad areas which relate to people's health, according to the socio-ecological view of health.
- During which decade were lifestyle risks seen as the major contributors to poor health?
Answer sheet
| 1 | |
| 2 | |
| 3 |
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spellcheck Answers1. 1946
2. social, economic, environmental
3. 1970's
The concept of health holds different meanings for different people and groups. These meanings of health have also changed over time. This change is no more evident than in Western society today, when notions of health and health promotion are being challenged and expanded in new ways.
For much of recent Western history, health has been viewed in the physical sense only. That is, good health has been connected to the smooth mechanical operation of the body, while ill health has been attributed to a breakdown in this machine. Health in this sense has been defined as the absence of disease or illness and is seen in medical terms. According to this view, creating health for people means providing medical care to treat or prevent disease and illness. During this period, there was an emphasis on providing clean water, improved sanitation and housing.
In the late 1940s the World Health Organisation challenged this physically and medically oriented view of health. They stated that "health is a complete state of physical, mental and social well-being and is not merely the absence of disease" (WHO, 1946). Health and the person were seen more holistically (mind/body/spirit) and not just in physical terms.
The 1970s was a time of focusing on the prevention of disease and illness by emphasising the importance of the lifestyle and behaviour of the individual. Specific behaviours which were seen to increase risk of disease, such as smoking, lack of fitness and unhealthy eating habits, were targeted. Creating health meant providing not only medical health care, but health promotion programs and policies which would help people maintain healthy behaviours and lifestyles. While this individualistic healthy lifestyles approach to health worked for some (the wealthy members of society), people experiencing poverty, unemployment, underemployment or little control over the conditions of their daily lives benefited little from this approach. This was largely because both the healthy lifestyles approach and the medical approach to health largely ignored the social and environmental conditions affecting the health of people.
During the 1980s and 1990s there has been a growing swing away from seeing lifestyle risks as the root cause of poor health. While lifestyle factors still remain important, health is being viewed also in terms of the social, economic and environmental contexts in which people live. This broad approach to health is called the socio-ecological view of health. The broad socio-ecological view of health was endorsed at the first International Conference of Health Promotion held in 1986, Ottawa, Canada, where people from 38 countries agreed and declared that: "The fundamental conditions and resources for health are peace, shelter, education, food, a viable income, a stable eco-system, sustainable resources, social justice and equity. Improvement in health requires a secure foundation in these basic requirements." (WHO, 1986)
It is clear from this statement that the creation of health is about much more than encouraging healthy individual behaviours and lifestyles and providing appropriate medical care. Therefore, the creation of health must include addressing issues such as poverty, pollution, urbanisation, natural resource depletion, social alienation and poor working conditions. The social, economic and environmental contexts which contribute to the creation of heath do not operate separately or independently of each other. Rather, they are interacting and interdependent, and it is the complex interrelationships between them which determine the conditions that promote health. A broad socio-ecological view of health suggests that the promotion of health must include a strong social, economic and environmental focus.
At the Ottawa Conference in 1986, a charter was developed which outlined new directions for health promotion based on the socio-ecological view of health. This charter, known as the Ottawa Charter for Health Promotion, remains as the backbone of health action today. In exploring the scope of health promotion it states that:
Good health is a major resource for social, economic and personal development and an important dimension of quality of life. Political, economic, social, cultural, environmental, behavioural and biological factors can all favour health or be harmful to it. (WHO, 1986) The Ottawa Charter brings practical meaning and action to this broad notion of health promotion. It presents fundamental strategies and approaches in achieving health for all. The overall philosophy of health promotion which guides these fundamental strategies and approaches is one of "enabling people to increase control over and to improve their health" (WHO, 1986).
Como as tendências te ajudam a preparares-te para o IELTS Reading
Já falámos das dicas do IELTS Reading para responder a cada tipo de pergunta. Agora vamos olhar para uma tendência interessante que pode ajudar na tua preparação. O gráfico circular abaixo ilustra a proporção de cada tipo de pergunta de Reading que apareceu nos exames oficiais do IELTS Reading em 2017.
Como podes ver, os tipos de pergunta «Sentence/Summary/Note/Table/Flow-chart/Diagram completion & Short answer» foram os mais frequentes, com 29%, seguidos de perto pelos de «Identifying information/viewer claims», com 23%. Por fim, o tipo «Matching features» representou 16%, «Matching information/Multiple choice» 11% e «Matching headings» 10%.
Com esta informação, podes ver quais os tipos de pergunta mais prováveis de aparecerem no teu exame do IELTS Reading. Embora DEVAS preparar-te para todos os tipos, conhecer estes dados ajuda-te a gerir melhor o tempo entre eles. Claro que, se obtiveres bons resultados em determinados tipos, provavelmente deves dedicar mais tempo aos tipos em que tens dificuldades. Se queres saber exatamente quais os tipos em que tens mais dificuldade, começa um exame de amostra GRATUITO do IELTS Reading e, no final, clica em «Ver resultados» para veres o teu relatório de diagnóstico completo, que inclui também o teu desempenho em cada tipo de pergunta.
A seguir, abordaremos as dicas e estratégias do IELTS Reading necessárias para uma pontuação elevada.
Dicas do IELTS Reading – Como melhorar a tua band score
A maioria dos candidatos não passa na secção de Reading pelas três razões seguintes:
- Velocidade de leitura lenta
- Vocabulário fraco
- Pouca ou nenhuma preparação
Como melhorar a tua velocidade de leitura
Comecemos pelo óbvio: para melhorar a tua velocidade de leitura, tens efetivamente de praticar a leitura e fazê-lo de forma consistente.
Agora vejamos uma estratégia menos óbvia que te ajudará a compreender o significado de grandes blocos de frases. Começa por dissecar a frase. Para isso, procura o sujeito e o verbo da frase. Encontrar o sujeito e o verbo ajudar-te-á a compreender o significado da frase. Uma razão pela qual os textos académicos podem ser difíceis de compreender é porque encadeiam várias ideias em frases compostas longas. Isto produz blocos longos de texto difíceis de absorver, por isso, usar o sujeito e o verbo como guia para entender o bloco inteiro é uma ferramenta excelente para usares no exame do IELTS Reading.
Como melhorar o teu vocabulário
Muita gente pensa que responder a perguntas de Reading é tão simples como percorrer o parágrafo à procura de palavras-chave e informação... infelizmente, não é assim tão simples. As perguntas de Reading estão geralmente parafraseadas, ou seja, as palavras foram alteradas para usar sinónimos das palavras do texto do IELTS. Isto é feito para aumentar a dificuldade; caso contrário, o exame seria demasiado fácil. Por isso, deves melhorar o teu vocabulário para conheceres os vários sinónimos de uma palavra.
Enquanto te preparas para o exame de Reading e te deparas com uma palavra que não conheces, ganha o hábito de a procurar de imediato ou, pelo menos, de a anotar para a procurares depois. É um pouco maçador, mas extremamente eficaz. O teu objetivo deve ser, entre outros, estudar 15 a 20 palavras académicas novas por dia.
Saber em que tipos de pergunta as respostas seguem ou não a ordem do texto
É importante saber que, em alguns tipos de pergunta, as respostas surgem normalmente (quase sempre) pela mesma ordem do texto. Noutros tipos, as respostas raramente seguem a ordem do texto. Preparámos uma tabela com os tipos que seguem a ordem e os que não seguem. Tem em conta o que se segue.
| As respostas costumam seguir (quase sempre) a ordem do texto | As respostas raramente seguem a ordem do texto |
|---|---|
|
|
Encontrar a melhor estratégia de leitura para ti
O maior desafio que a maioria dos candidatos enfrenta no IELTS Reading é concluir todas as perguntas antes de o tempo terminar. Na próxima secção aprenderás três estratégias e cabe-te a ti descobrir qual a que melhor se adequa a ti. Fá-lo-ás com as nossas práticas de leitura gratuitas.
3 estratégias para o IELTS Reading
Estratégia 1: Ler o texto inteiro e depois responder às perguntas.
Na verdade, isto não é bem uma estratégia. É o que as pessoas fazem quando não se preparam adequadamente para o exame de Reading. Ainda assim, incluímo-la como estratégia porque, tecnicamente, se conseguires reter a informação do texto numa primeira leitura e responder às perguntas, não precisarás da estratégia 2.
Esta estratégia, se não tiveres uma memória acima da média, é ineficiente. Vais acabar por ficar sem tempo antes de conseguir responder a todas as perguntas. Muita gente comete este erro. Contudo, há algumas perguntas que não exigem muito esforço e beneficiam desta estratégia, como por exemplo perguntas de resposta «sim» ou «não», em que podes percorrer o texto rapidamente e encontrar a resposta de imediato. Mas não há perguntas suficientes deste tipo, por isso não é aconselhável usar esta estratégia, salvo se conseguires geri-la.
Estratégia 2: Ler primeiro as perguntas, ler com um objetivo, tirar notas e responder com critério
Esta é a nossa estratégia recomendada. Vai ajudar-te a obter uma band score mais alta no IELTS Reading. Pensa nisto como um mapa claro de como abordar o exame em geral:
Um dos erros mais comuns que os candidatos cometem ao abordar
o exame de Reading é lerem cada palavra dos textos do IELTS. Embora possas
praticar para o exame lendo por prazer, «ler às cegas» (ler sem qualquer noção
do que as perguntas irão pedir) não te trará vantagens no exame. Pelo contrário, prejudicará
as tuas hipóteses de gerir eficazmente o tempo e obter a melhor pontuação.
A principal razão para ler primeiro as perguntas é que o tipo de pergunta pode determinar o que
lês no texto ou como o lês. Por exemplo, alguns tipos de pergunta exigem a técnica
«skimming», enquanto outros exigem «scanning».
É importante abordar um conjunto de perguntas do mesmo tipo.
Tens de decidir qual o tipo de pergunta que vais resolver primeiro.
Uma boa estratégia é começar pelo tipo mais fácil e passar para os tipos mais difíceis depois.
Os tipos mais fáceis são aqueles em que dedicas menos tempo à leitura.
Por exemplo, o tipo Correspondência de Títulos é mais fácil porque
só precisas de encontrar o título que melhor descreve a ideia principal de um parágrafo.
Um exemplo de tipo difícil é Identificação de Informação. Neste tipo,
tens de ler cada parágrafo para determinar se cada afirmação é TRUE, FALSE ou NOT GIVEN, de acordo com o texto.
Aqui tens uma tabela com os níveis de dificuldade para cada tipo de pergunta. Usa esta tabela como referência para decidires qual abordar primeiro.
| Nível de dificuldade | Tipo de pergunta |
|---|---|
| Fácil | Correspondência de títulos Resposta curta |
| Médio |
Correspondência de finais de frase Correspondência de características Escolha múltipla Completar frases Completar legendas de diagramas, resumos, notas, tabelas e diagramas de fluxo |
| Difícil |
Correspondência de informação Identificação de informação (TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN) Identificação de afirmações do autor (YES/NO/NOT GIVEN) |
Depois de leres as perguntas, conseguirás ler com um objetivo. O que é que isto significa? Por exemplo, se te deparas com uma pergunta que inclui o ano «1896», podes anotar onde esse ano aparece no texto e usá-lo depois para responder à pergunta.
Existem duas técnicas de leitura que te ajudarão a manter o foco quando leres com um objetivo. A primeira, skimming, é leres rapidamente para captar a ideia geral de um texto. Com esta técnica, não pares em palavras desconhecidas nem procures detalhes específicos. A segunda técnica, scanning, é leres em busca de informação específica. Com esta técnica, não estás a ler para a ideia geral, mas sim para informação concreta. Repara que cada uma destas técnicas tem um objetivo específico. Isto ajudar-te-á a encontrar a informação mais depressa.
Enquanto lês com um objetivo, deves também tirar notas nas margens do texto, colocando estrelas junto à informação-chave ou sublinhando coisas que achas que te ajudarão a responder às várias perguntas. Isto facilitar-te-á a tarefa de voltar atrás quando te forem feitas certas perguntas. Escolhe o sistema de notas que melhor funciona para ti — apenas certifica-te de que o usas.
Depois de leres as perguntas, leres o texto e tirares as notas adequadas, já deves ter localizado a parte do texto onde precisas de ler com atenção. Depois, basta ler com cuidado e pensar de forma crítica para determinar a resposta correta.
Estratégia 3: Skimming, tirar notas e tipos de pergunta.
Esta é outra estratégia usada por muitos candidatos ao IELTS. Ajudar-te-á a obter uma melhor band score em Reading. A estratégia tem 4 passos:
- Faz skimming a cada parágrafo para captar a ideia geral de cada um. A ideia principal de um parágrafo encontra-se normalmente nas primeiras frases, por isso concentra-te um pouco mais nelas. As frases seguintes podem ser lidas rapidamente, sublinhando nomes, palavras ou expressões que se destaquem.
- Depois de fazeres skimming a cada parágrafo, escreve notas curtas (2 a 5 palavras) ao lado de cada parágrafo, com a tua melhor estimativa para a ideia principal desse parágrafo.
- A seguir, responde a um conjunto de perguntas do mesmo tipo.
- Por último, responde de forma eficiente e correta a um conjunto de perguntas.
É importante não dedicares mais do que 3 a 5 minutos aos passos 1 e 2. Passar demasiado tempo neles desperdiça muito tempo e acabarás por ficar sem ele.
Passos 1 e 2O objetivo é montar um método eficiente para encontrar respostas no texto. Ao anotares a ideia geral de cada parágrafo, saberás qual o parágrafo que contém a resposta a cada pergunta. Isto poupa-te muito tempo, porque, se não tivesses anotado, provavelmente terias de fazer skimming a cada parágrafo para captar a ideia geral e depois scanning cuidadoso para encontrar a resposta. Ao anotares a ideia principal de cada parágrafo, saltas o primeiro passo de skimming e começas logo a fazer scanning à procura da resposta.
Passo 3
Depois de teres feito skimming ao texto e de teres tomado notas, estás pronto para o passo 3.
Neste passo, tens de decidir qual o tipo de pergunta que vais resolver primeiro.
Uma boa estratégia é começar pelo tipo mais fácil e passar aos tipos mais difíceis depois.
Os tipos mais fáceis são aqueles em que se dedica menos tempo à leitura.
Por exemplo, o tipo Correspondência de Títulos é mais fácil porque
só precisas de encontrar o título que melhor descreve a ideia principal de um parágrafo, pelo que tecnicamente apenas necessitas dos passos 1 e 2 para responder a este tipo.
Um exemplo de tipo difícil é Identificação de Informação. Neste tipo,
tens de ler cada parágrafo para determinar se cada afirmação é TRUE, FALSE ou NOT GIVEN, de acordo com o texto.
Aqui tens uma tabela com os níveis de dificuldade para cada tipo de pergunta. Usa-a como referência para decidires qual abordar primeiro.
| Nível de dificuldade | Tipo de pergunta |
|---|---|
| Fácil | Correspondência de títulos Resposta curta |
| Médio |
Correspondência de finais de frase Correspondência de características Escolha múltipla Completar frases Completar legendas de diagramas, resumos, notas, tabelas e diagramas de fluxo |
| Difícil |
Correspondência de informação Identificação de informação (TRUE/FALSE/NOT GIVEN) Identificação de afirmações do autor (YES/NO/NOT GIVEN) |
Agora que já sabes qual o conjunto de perguntas que vais resolver primeiro, chegou a altura de as responderes :( Não te preocupes! Embora cada tipo de pergunta seja diferente, a estratégia para as responder corretamente aplica-se a todas. O princípio básico é simples — basta seguires os passos abaixo:
- Lê a pergunta com atenção e identifica as palavras-chave importantes.
- Encontra o parágrafo que contém a informação necessária para responder à pergunta. (Se já tens as ideias gerais de cada parágrafo anotadas, podes descobri-lo facilmente.)
- Faz scanning ao parágrafo à procura das palavras-chave importantes (é muito provável que sejam sinónimos!) até localizares a parte do texto onde tens de ler com atenção.
- Por fim, lê com atenção e pensa de forma crítica para determinares a resposta correta.
Descargas gratuitas de amostras do IELTS Reading em PDF com respostas
Abaixo tens algumas amostras gratuitas de leitura do British Council (os criadores do exame IELTS). Tenta responder às perguntas e vê como te sais!